Hey all, just some responses to Nova's and Baerchild's post -

1) From the verses that were qouted by Nova and Baerchild-

Nova has correctly given references of Jesus account between the time he was caught all the way to his burial in the sepulchre. Baerchild then gave references of what happened to Jesus on the cross.

If we analyse, 2 things that were quite blatant and obvious are:

a)It required the Jews to take him with the help of the Romans for him to be crucified.

b) Jesus was asking God why was he forsaken.

The thing to note here is that Jesus has never ever volunteered to be crucified. Why i say this is important is because if he really have this notion of having to come down as a human and having to die to pay for the sins of mankind, then the least he could do, is to make it easy for everyone.

But according to the biblical account, did he make it easy??? The answer is a big NO. Here are some points:

- Thousands of years has to pass for mankind to carry this sin before he had to come down to die
- In Genesis Chapter 6, The great flood according to the bible killed everyone creature on earth except for 8 people (Noah, Noah's wife, Shem, Hem, Japhet and their 3 wives). Isn't that enough atonement???
- In the Gospels, Jesus instructed his disciples to arm themselves to be ready before he was arrested.
- In the Gospels, we read that he tried to preach to the Jews, his own people but they cared not and accused him of being an impostor.
- In the Gospels, we have never come across any where which Jesus say that in order to pay for the sins of mankind, a God needs to die
- In the Gospels, we have never come across anywhere which Jesus say that a god needs to come down as a human being to die, to pay or the sins of mankind.
- In the Gospels, we have never come across anywhere which Jesus say that there is no salvation for Adam, eve, Abel, Cain, Moses, Job, Noah, David, Solomon, etc.

Jesus had never at anytime preached anything like that. If Jesus in his lifetime never preached those, then how could anyone during his time know of the idea of orginal sin???

2) From Baerchild - Matthew 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel

There are 2 things to note about this verse -

a) The 1st time this verse was seen, is in Isaiah 7:14. Biblical scholars now tell us that the word "virgin" isn't supposed to be there. It is a mistranslated word from the hebrew word - "almah". In the hebrew dictionary - almah = young woman. bethulah = virgin. Both the verses in the bible used "almah" and not "bethulah".

b) The verse is a supposed prophecy of Jesus. To actually see if it is a fulfilled one, you have to check if Jesus was actually called Emmanuel at any time. Again, the answer is a big NO. If you say that you can't take the name Emmanuel literally, there will be no evidence then for that verse to be attributed to Jesus. Because we see now that it described a young woman instead of a virgin.

Again, i would like to take this opportunity to apologize to any christians, if in my dicussion i've offended anyone. I think I am only following what the bible said in Isaiah 1:18 -

Isaiah 1:18
Let us reason together